I simply don’t have enough time to address all of your arguments, so I will select only a few:
You are not allowed to “reverse” it as stated if you are arguing by the laws of logic. That is why there is a burden of proof. It is not my responsibility to disprove anyone else’s argument of existence, it is for them to prove it. Take the teapot scenario as an exemplum absurdum. Of course we do not wish to have knowledge on this form. That is why logic has a burden of proof.
And now Aquinas’ argument:
Non sequitur - it does not follow from “for in any such…” that “the order of efficient causes cannot proceed to infinity”. In addition, we do no yet have any evidence that causes can proceed to infinity. (However, the Big Bang “theory”, does not even take this into account, but rather denotes the start of time, space, matter and energy).
Sentimental fallacy and non sequitur. It would perhaps be “pleasant” if God was the “first efficient cause”, but that does not mean it is true. Neither does it follow that if there is a first efficient cause, it’s denotion would prove God’s existence (non sequitur). Therefore, Aquina’s argument is invalid.
Give an example where someone said that, or you have made an invalid generalization.
It does not matter if you can imagine it or not. I can imagine God, but that does not mean that he exists. You have to provide evidence that an uncaused cause exists, AND that it is God. The Big Bang has such evidence (for example, the movement of galaxies). There is none for God.
Prove that this analogy explains the existence of God.
Argumentum ad baculum and argumentum verbosium - you are trying to intimidate me by writing this instead of actually presenting the arguments. In addition, a verbose and overly complex argument (verbosium) does not mean that it is correct.
This is getting on my nerves, but I will not turn this into an emotional debate. The “brainy intellectual” has provided evidence in his scientific paper for his claims - otherwise, it would not even get through peer review. These persons you have quoted have so far not provided any evidence at all.
Base rate fallacy, and false analogy. No, you cannot use the argument to support intelligent design, because intelligent design does not have any substantial evidence in favour for it, while evolution does. (And that’s not a small portion.)
Because science doesn’t predict nature to infintisimal accuracy, it is an approximation of reality. Today, the approximation for most theories is excellent but of course not perfect per definition. However, the lack of a perfect truth does not mean we cannot use something that is close enough, and that actually counts as a logical fallacy: the Nirvana fallacy.
Contextonomy - quoting out of context. You failed to quote that the initial post had a mod split message, meaning it in fact started as a post in a different thread. Regardless, it is irrelevant.
You did, but I subsequently proved that the evidence was faulty, and thus invalid.
Argumentum ad hominem.
No, if you wanted to do that in an efficient way, you would have sent a personal message to the moderators. By posting in the topic, you were signaling to others that your argument may be valid through the Appeal to flattery fallacy, which of course is invalid in logic.
Evidence is not opinion. Evidence can support opinion.